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CHALLENGING CASE 

Severe Temper Outbursts in a 10-Year-Old Girl

By Leo Bastiaens, MD | March 5, 2012
Dr Bastiaens is Clinical Associate Professor of Psychiatry at the University of Pittsburgh. He reports no conflicts on interest concerning the subject matter of this article.

We invite you to answer the following question after reading the Case Vignette. Discussion follows on the next page.

On the basis of the patient's depression symptoms in the past year and the hypomanic episodes, what is the diagnosis and why?

CASE VIGNETTE

Betty is a 10-year-old girl who initially presented to outpatient psychiatric care for severe temper outbursts—rages precipitated by minor issues. These lasted for 1 to 2 hours and included destruction of property, physical aggression, and suicidal threats. Bipolar disorder was diagnosed. She was initially treated with quetiapine(Drug information on quetiapine) and later with a combination of quetiapine and valproic acid. The medical record did not mention symptoms related to major depression, mania, ADHD, or anxiety.

Several months later, the Betty was hospitalized because of ongoing destructive psychiatric episodes. During the hospitalization, she was given a diagnosis of major depressive disorder and treatment with an antidepressant in conjunction with quetiapine was started. The hospital psychiatrist did not consider the outbursts as an indication of bipolar disorder; there was no record of manic symptoms.

Subsequent to the hospitalization, the patient was evaluated with the Mini International Neuropsychiatric Interview (MINI). During the evaluation, the presence of significant depressive symptoms, including low mood, reduced interest level in several activities, insomnia and fatigue, self-derogatory thinking, and poor concentration, were identified. Betty and her mother described a 5-day episode of clear hypomanic symptoms that had occurred 8 months earlier: euphoria, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity, very fast speech, and an increased activity level. A similar episode, of 2 days’ duration, occurred 4 months after the initial episode.

There were no symptoms of ADHD and no psychosis, trauma, PTSD, significant anxiety, or substance use. The family history was positive for bipolar disorder, although this could not be verified.

QUESTION:

On the basis of the patient's depression symptoms in the past year and the hypomanic episodes, what is the diagnosis and why?

Click here for answer and discussion.

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by lucianne cronin | April 27, 2012 12:03 PM EDT

Seems as though one question would have given the correct diagnosis if it were that clear. This scenario makes me think of all the times when reviewing a patient's history with them, I get completely different answers to questions answered and documented years before. Sometimes we are asking questions too early, i.e. the mood changes are not present yet, and sometimes we open the door to those possibilities by asking the questions- which years later bring an "oh, yeh!!" You think?

by Frank Miller | March 06, 2012 6:39 PM EST

Very good concise useful case with timely and wise, even handed historical commentary. I especially like the pithy differentiations re right dd for wrong reasons and the obverse. Use of the MINI instrument and others like it are truly much needed to drastically clean up years of our profession vastly overdiagnosing "bipolar disorder" in youth. But this also reflects the totally inadequate spectrum of clinical categories in the current DSM.
Frank Miller MD, North Carolina

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